In the book of Romans Paul deals a lot with the subject of the Law versus righteousness by faith. In addition, he devoted three chapters (9-11) to the subject of Israel. Where the mainline church seriously goes wrong is that they think that Paul was talking about Jews (which is ALL Israel to the average evangelist) and non-Israelite Gentiles. First of all, one must ask why Paul would be contrasting the two if the subject is Israel? No, he was contrasting the two houses of Israel. On the surface, it would appear to the average new convert to Christianity back then that the gospel "did not take" with the Jew, and for that matter, the other 10 tribes were lost. Between the two, it appeared that God had forsaken Israel. Paul assured them not (Romans 11:1-2) but rather that referring to the Jewish part of Israel, or "Israel which follows the Law" is not all of Israel (Romans 9:6) but there is also an election of Israel (Ephraim-Israel) from which the elect of grace would come. Paul assuredly stated that this fulfillment would be when they would come to their "fullness", or as Genesis 48 said of Ephraim, a multitude of nations. So, in "this manner" all Israel would be saved regarding the gospel, especially since they would become populous, powerful, prosperous, and the preachers of righteousness thereby becoming a "blessing to all nations".
The subject of this message is Romans chapter 4. You see, I'm getting very concerned that all the promises of God are being severely spiritualized. For every spiritual action, there is an equal physical reaction if I may sound a tad "Newtonish" here. For every promise of MANY descendants, there are BOTH physical and spiritual fulfillments. The two work together and I am getting sick of the Gnostic separation of the two these days. It makes me start to think that most Christians do not believe or want the Second Coming of Christ. I'll tell you what. The return of Jesus is very real, and the same logic can be applied to other conditions and promises.
Let's look at Romans 4 and talk about the passages and the promise of riches to Abraham:
Romans 4:1-8: What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
Paul addressed Abraham as "our" father in the flesh. That meant that he was a physical ancestor. Paul used "our" because the subject of Law vs. faith involved the subject of the Jews, or the part of Israel that followed the Law. Since Paul was an Israelite of the tribe of Benjamin and nationally Jewish, the possessive pronoun "our" is referencing him and his kinsmen, and not the Romans necessarily (unless some could trace their genealogy to either the Jews or Israelites.) Before I continue, we must understand that the part of Israel that comprised the Jews followed the Law of God, and yet Paul was stating that was not how true righteousness was obtained. Well, what about the promises to God's people, the Jews? This is where the mainline churches fly off the track. That's the point Paul will be making here. He understood there were TWO houses of Israel, and the promises did not go to the Jew, but to the lost house of Israel which represented the faith he was preaching. In other words, Paul was NOT contrasting Jews and non-Israelite Gentiles, but two distinct portions of Israel--- one being a type of the natural (and under Law) and the other being under grace. Judah vs. Ephraim. This concept is clearly depicted in Pisces. Pisces was associated with Israel, and not the church that was not even revealed yet in the Old Testament days when the constellations were revealed!
Then Paul goes on to say that if the promises to Abraham were by works, he could boast (implying the Jews likewise would be recipients to the promises because they kept the Law). But in reality, he asked the question as to why Abraham received the promises. Paul pointed this out that is was due to Abraham's faith that the promises were secured--- not because God "owed" him anything due to his righteous works (i.e. of "debt"). Even David claimed that righteousness was imputed on a man according to Scripture. So, the moral of the story was that the promises were gained by faith and not by Law--- and needless to say, if that were the case, there would be NO NEED to contrast Law and grace the way Paul was trying to explain. They would be one and the same and indeed there would be a problem as to why Law-keepers did not inherit the promises. Let's continue reading:
9-12: Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness. How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision. And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also: And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.
Simply put, Paul was addressing that the promises to Abraham antedated the procedure of circumcision that represented the covenant (or to many folks the representation of the Law). So even though many people think of Abraham as the old "Jew" who was father to all, the point Paul was making was that these promises were already obtained while he was very much "unJewish" yet because he was not circumcised. By extension, Paul pointed out this also represented that those who NOT under the Law could also be recipients by faith (remember that the lost house of Israel was divorced from God and no longer under that covenant of the Law and by extension, non-Israelite Gentiles as well since they were in the same boat). Let's continue:
13-15: For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith. For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect: Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.
That's a big promise, to be the heir of the world! It's amazing how many Christians miss that only to spiritualize it as meaning "spiritual riches" or some abstract blessing. No, the Bible is a story of God's Kingdom vs. Satan's Kingdom. The world in its original creation was supposed to be the Kingdom of God headed by Adam. Now, Satan is the "prince of the power of the air" (Ephesians 2:2) controlling this world due to Adam's disobedience and submission to the temptation of Satan. Why would God "defeat" the devil by making heirs something "abstract" and "out there in heaven" and leave things undone here on Earth? That defeats the very concept and purpose of creation to begin with and Satan would really be the winner if God just moved His kingdom elsewhere! But this goes over the heads of many. You know why? They don't really believe the Bible, that's why!
Anyway, Paul was saying that the promises were not to Abraham and his seed (physical descendants) by the Law (therefore that's why the Jew does not possess them), but to the seed by the righteousness (i.e. Abraham's righteousness) by faith. To backtrack slightly, Abraham did not inherit the promises through the Law becoming circumcised first and then receiving them. On the contrary, it was the other way around! There is another part of Israel of the seed of Abraham waiting to receive them! Otherwise, if it went to the Law part of Israel only, this twofold nature of Israel would be null and void, and there would be no need for faith.
16-18: Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law [i.e. the Jewish part of Israel], but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham [i.e. to the other promise recipients of Israel]; who is the father of us all [i.e. the father of Paul, and the Israelites], (As it is written [or, that is to say...Paul is expanding on what God promised Abraham], I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.
Paul is explaining here that what appeared to be a failure in promises were yet very real, but to the part of Israel represented by the faith of Abraham, not the Law part. Notice here he is not excluding the Jews. We know in the end times (i.e. "to the end" or the purpose of it) they will "come around" too and enjoy the same blessings. But until the "two sticks" are rejoined as Ezekiel 37 prophesied, there will be this dualistic facet to Israel. Paul then used the example of Abraham's promised son to show that God will keep His promises even though there was no apparent heir to carry this out! (That's what he meant by "against hope believed in hope" and "calleth those things which be not as though they were".) These promised descendants of Israel were to become many nations, an issue Paul later addressed in Romans 11, but was not meant to be fulfilled in the Jewish (Law) part of Israel. Paul continues on:
19-25: And being not weak in faith, he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sara's womb: He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God; And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform. And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness. Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him; But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead; Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.
Paul then revealed the details of Abraham's promised seed needed to carry out the promises. In short, God made promises, there was no apparent seed to carry them out, everything looked dismal from a "sight" perspective, but Abraham believed God anyway and that faith was the righteousness of Abraham that enabled this to be done, and not by works of the Law. That's the whole chapter in a nutshell. And likewise, this same faith is the basis for our salvation in Christ. Keep in mind this is not only personal faith in Christ, but also that Christ was part of the many promises to Abraham in which one can base their faith. The same faith that would produce many nations for the Israelites to be the blessing to the world is the same faith that produced Christ, the source of those blessings.